%%visits: 5 Let f ∈ C[a, b] be differentiable on (a, b) and assume f(a) = f(b). Then there exists a point c ∈ (a, b) such that f′(c) = 0
This is really just combining extreme_value_theorem with Fermats_Theorem. Can be proven case by case.
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Rolle’s thm
f(a) = f(b)
f is cts on $$
differentiable on (a, b)
⟹ ∃c ∈ (a, b) so f′(c)0
Link mean_value_theorem to rolles_theorem: Think of mean_value_theorem as a generalisation
$$ f'(p) = \frac{f(b) -f(a)}{b-a} $$
speed at some point is the same as the average speed.
If you travelled 60mph over an hour, at some point you travelled 60mph instantaneously
I model a stock S(t) = Main(t) + Error(t). If I want to sell this stock, the error term needs to be low.
The behaviour of the stock over a year, modelled at every interval in a linear fashion.
sps I culd partition $$ into small intervals. I1, …, IN so sup|Error(t)| < 1p
How big must I choose N?