%%visits: 2 What is a homomorphic function of groups? $(g *_G g’) = (g) *_H (g’) :g,g’ G $ ## intuition Let G1 and G2 be groups. A map Φ : G1 → G2 is a homomorphism if Φ(gh) = Φ(g)(Φ(h)∀g, h, ∈ G1 It sat
Every pattern is an element in a group, with actions, being the action of moving around with the cube.
G1 = {−1, 1} under multiplication
$G_2 = \left\{ \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix},\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \right\}$
Homomorphisms may need to be figured out on the spot, we need to think of the operation rule that defines the homomorphism
If the group is defined as a function, then proving homomorphism is simply using the function.
If the group is defined as a set of elements, then it won’t be possible to use the function shortcut.
the order of an element is just shorthand for the order of the subgroup generated by an element.
extra Read or try to find. Theorem, Two cyclic_groups of the same order are isomorphic. The trivial homomorphism is
$: G H , g,g’ G (gg’) = e_H $
ϕ(g2) = ϕ(g)2
A function between two rings is homomorphic if
sum of inputs = sum of outputs
product of inputs = product of outputs
1R maps to 1S ## rigour homomorphis
:= A function between two groups is homomorphic if $(g *_G
g’) = (g) *_H (g’) :g,g’ G $
A homomorphism is an [[isomorphism]] iff it is surjective and the kernel is trivial. {{file:../figures/screenshot_20211025_101142.png}}
The kernel is a normal subgroup Theorem 10.2
The image of a homomorphism is an isomorphism
Let g1′g2′ ∈ Im(phi) ⊂ G2 Then there exists a g1, g2 ∈ G1 such that ϕ(g1) = g1′, ϕ(g2) = g2′ then g1′g2′ = ϕ(g1)ϕ(g2) = ϕ(g1g2) ∈ Im(ϕ) therefore g1′g2′ ∈ Im(ϕ), hence we have closure
Associativity is inherited from the associative product of G2
Identity since phi of e is e, we must have the identity.
Inverses: Due to surjectivity ∀g′ ∈ Im(ϕ)∃ginG1 such that ϕ(g) = g′, now g′−1 = ϕ(g)−1 = ϕ(g−1) therefore g′−1 ∈ Im(ϕ)
Hence Im(ϕ) ⊂ G2 is a subgroup ▫
A homomorphism ϕ : G → Im(ϕ) is an isomorphism ⇔ the kernel is just the identity element.
proof: By definition, ϕ is surjective. We only wts that it is injective and so ker is e and vice versa
“⟹”
g ∈ ker (ϕ) ⟹ ϕ(g) = e′ ∈ Im(ϕ) since ϕ is injective then g is the unique pre-image of e′
“⟸”
Suppose for contradiction sake if ϕ(g1) = ϕ(g2) for g1 ≠ g2, g1, g2 ∈ G then ϕ(g1)ϕ(g2)−1 = e′ then this implies ϕ(g1g2−1) = e′ therefore g1g2−1 ∈ ker(ϕ) = {e} ⟹ g1g2−1 = e ⟹ g1 = g2 which contradicts our assumption. ▫
Theorem: Let G be a group, then G/Z(G) ≅ Inn(G) Proof Consider he map ψ : G → Inn(G) given by ψ(g) = ϕg the inner automorphism, conjugation ψ is a homomorphism:
ψ(g1g2)(h) = ϕg1g2(h) for some g1, g2, h ∈ G
= (g1g2)h(g1g2)−1 = g1g2hg2−1g1−1 = ϕg1ϕ̇g2(h)
= ψ(g1)ψ(g2)(h) therefore it is homomorphic
im(ψ) = Inn(G) by construction (since it is a conjugation)
ker(ψ) = {g ∈ G|ψ(g) = identity map}
= {g ∈ G|ϕg(h) = id(h) = h∀h ∈ G}
= {g ∈ G|ϕg(h) = hgh−1 = g∀h ∈ G} = Z(G)
Therefore by the group homomorphism theorem we have, G \ Z(G) ≅ Inn(G)
Let G1 and G2 be groups. A map Φ : G1 → G2
is a homomorphism if Φ(gh) = Φ(g)(Φ(h)∀g, h, ∈ G1
;x Isomorphis := Bijective homomorphism Isomorphism:~ this
shows the same underlying structure.
n.b. Φ−1 : G2 → G1 while (Φ(g))−1 ∈ G1 The first is a function inverse, the second is an inverse element.
Proof that Φ(e1) = e2 (Identity maps to identity) As e1 = e1e1 then Φ(e1) = Φ(e1e1) = Φ(e1)Φ(e1) Now as Φ(e1) ∈ G2, a group, then (Φ(e1))−1 exists in G2, hence when we left multiply the above by, this, e2 = (Φ(e1))−1Φ(e1)Φ(e1) = e2Φ(e1) = Φ(e1)
Proof that Φ(g−1) = (Φ(g))−1 As e1 = gg−1∀g ∈ G Therefore Φ(e1) = Φ(gg−1) = Φ(g)Φ(g−1) But, Φ(e1) = e2 So, e2 = Φ(g)Φ(g−1) Left Multiply by (Φ(g))−1 Φ(g)−1 = Φ(g−1) ## resources tags :math:introduction_to_abstract_algebra:groups_and_symmetries: